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Here is his ED ECG at triage: Obvious high lateral OMI that does not quite meet STEMI criteria. This confirms that the pain was ischemia and is now resovled. Because the pathologist determines the degree of stenosis by dividing the lumen area by the total area, the degree of stenosis will be overestimated.
This EKG is diagnostic of transmural ischemia of the inferior wall. If it is angina, lowering the BP with IV Nitroglycerine may completely alleviate the pain and the (unseen) ECG ischemia. Or is it a very tight stenosis that does not allow enough flow to perfuse myocardium that has a high oxygen demand from severely elevated BP?
This case shows a CT image of subendocardial ischemia. However, there are also Q-waves inferiorly and the inferior T-waves are inverted, suggesting that this is an old MI with persistent ST elevation, or, alternatively, a subacute or partially reperfused, inferior STEMI. This is all but diagnostic of inferior-posterior STEMI.
This ECG was read as “No STEMI” with no prior available for comparison. It is true this ECG does not meet STEMI criteria (there is 1.0 The patient has also developed sinus bradycardia, which may result from right coronary artery ischemia to the SA node. Instead we discussed 5 minute delays for the STEMI(+) OMI patients.
This is a 45 yo male who had an inferior STEMI 6 months prior, was found to have severe LAD and left main disease, and was supposed to be set up for CABG a few weeks later, but did not follow up. But it could be anterior STEMI. 40% of anterior STEMI has upward concavity in all of leads V2-V6. is likely anterior STEMI).
This certainly looks like an anterior STEMI (proximal LAD occlusion), with STE and hyperacute T-waves (HATW) in V2-V6 and I and aVL. This rules out subendocardial ischemia and is diagnostic of posterior OMI. How do you explain the anterior STEMI(+)OMI immediately after ROSC evolving into posterior OMI 30 minutes later?
Clinical Course The paramedic activated a “Code STEMI” alert and transported the patient nearly 50 miles to the closest tertiary medical center. A transthoracic echocardiogram showed an LV EF of less than 15%, critically severe aortic stenosis , severe LVH , and a small LV cavity. Look at the aortic outflow tract. What do you see?
This suggests further severe ischemia. Even in patients whose moderate stenosis undergoes thrombosis, most angiograms show greater than 50% stenosis after the event. However, one can certainly imagine that many thromboses of non-obstructive lesions completely lyse and do not leave a stenosis on same day or next day angiogram.
Angiogram around 9am: Culprit lesion mid LAD 100% stenosis TIMI 0 TIMI 3 after PCI Severe apical dyskinesis, severe anteroapical akinesis. Instead, pain is numbed and thus ischemia is obscured with opioids, excuses like hypertension are blamed, and unnecessary CT pulmonary angiograms are focused on. None further were ordered.
This suggests diffuse subendocardial ischemia. However, along with that subendocardial ischemia, there is also STE in lead III with reciprocal ST depression in aVL, and some STE in V1. If there is also subendocardial ischemia, the ST depression vector remains leftward, with a reciprocal ST Elevation vector also to the right.
There is profound LVH with anterolateral ST elevation and reciprocal ST depression in II, III, aVF, and ST depression in V5 and V6 that could all be secondary to LVH or could represent ischemia superimposed on the repolarization abnormalities of LVH: note that wherever there is ST depression, it is associated with a very high voltage R-wave.
Only very slight STE which does not meet STEMI criteria at this time. I am immediately worried that this OMI will not be understood, for many reasons including lack of sufficient STE for STEMI criteria, as well as the common misunderstanding of "no reciprocal findings" which is very common with this particular pattern.
This has been termed a “STEMI equivalent” and included in STEMI guidelines, suggesting this patient should receive dual anti-platelets, heparin and immediate cath lab activation–or thrombolysis in centres where cath lab is not available. His response: “subendocardial ischemia. Anything more on history? POCUS will be helpful.”
The ECG shows obvious STEMI(+) OMI due to probable proximal LAD occlusion. Angiography : LMCA — 90-99% osteal stenosis. LCx — 50-69% stenosis of the 1st marginal branch; with 100% distal LCx occlusion. There is no definite evidence of acute ischemia. (ie, The below ECG was recorded. RCA — 100% proximal occlussion.
When the ST vector is primarily posterior, the diagnosis is usually posterior STEMI. Contrary to what Ken stated, the ST vector remains mostly posterior __ What about subendocardial ischemia? Subendocardial ischemia results in ST depression, but unfortunately, and rather mysteriously, it does not localize to the ischemic wall.
A prehospital “STEMI” activation was called on a 75 year old male ( Patient 1 ) with a history of hyperlipidemia and LAD and Cx OMI with stent placement. Whether these EKGs show myocarditis, a normal variant, or something else, they are overall not typical of transmural ischemia of the anterior or high lateral walls. It was stented.
Again, it is common to have an ECG that shows apparent subendocardial ischemia after resuscitation from cardiac arrest, after defibrillation, and after cardioversion. and repeat the ECG, to see if the apparent ischemia persists. A third ECG was done about 25 minutes after the first: This shows resolution of all apparent ischemia.
I would expect TIMI-3 flow (normal flow, no persistent ischemia) with a culprit in the RCA (or possibly Circumflex). The angiogram showed an open artery with 95% stenosis and thrombosis and it was stented. Quiz : What percent of full blown STEMI have an open artery with normal flow at angiogram? Jesse McLaren et al.
The culprit lesion was a complex calcified mid LAD stenosis involving the first and second diagonal branches. Post Cath ECG: Obviously completing MI with LVA morphology, and STE that meets STEMI criteria (but pt is still diagnosed as "NSTEMI"). The case doesn't come up for quality assurance because that is only done for STEMI patients.
The precordial STD persists in severity from V4-V6, rather than being maximal in V1-V4 (as in posterior OMI), and so the ECG overall best fits the subendocardial ischemia pattern (diffuse supply/demand mismatch). A "STEMI alert" was called and soon cancelled.
Down-up T-waves in inferior leads are almost always reciprocal to ischemia in the territory underlying aVL. This is not normal and is a tip off that there is posterior ischemia accompanying the ischemia in aVL. Important Learning Point: "STEMI" is defined by millimeter criteria (1 mm in limb leads), which this does not meet.
Post by Smith and Meyers Sam Ghali ( [link] ) just asked me (Smith): "Steve, do left main coronary artery *occlusions* (actual ones with transmural ischemia) have ST Depression or ST Elevation in aVR?" All are, however, clearly massive STEMI. This is her ECG: An obvious STEMI, but which artery?
STE limited to aVR is due to diffuse subendocardial ischemia, but what of STE in both aVR and V1? The last section is a detailed discussion of the research on aVR in both STEMI and NonSTEMI. Alternatively, it is a variant of diffuse subendocardial ischemia, with STE in V1 reciprocal to ST depression in inferior and lateral leads.
There’s mild inferior ST elevation in III that doesn’t meet STEMI criteria, but it’s associated with ST depression in aVL and V2 that makes it diagnostic of infero-posterior Occlusion MI (from either RCA or circumflex)– accompanied by inferior Q waves of unknown age. Are there any signs of occlusion or reperfusion?
Here is the prehospital ECG, with pain: Hyperacute anterolateral STEMI The medics had activated the cath lab and the patient went for angiogram and had a 95% stenotic LAD with TIMI-3 flow. For those who depend on echocardiogram to confirm the ECG findings of ischemia, this should be sobering. Type B waves are deeper and symmetric.
There is appreciable STE aVR with near-global STD that appropriately maximizes in Leads II and V5, and thus suggesting a circumstance of generic, diffusely populated, circumferential subendocardial ischemia versus occlusive coronary thrombus. [1] STEMI was activated and the patient went to Cath on arrival.
More Smith comment: it is true that ST depression (STD) due to subendocardial ischemia does not localize [it is usually diffuse ST depression, in multiple leads and not reciprocal to ST elevation in an opposite territory], this ST depression is different! When there is STE in V4-V6, and in inferior leads, there is no ST depression in V2-V4.
I knew that, if the patient had presented with chest discomfort, that this ECG is diagnostic of inferior posterior OMI, even though it is not a STEMI. In subendocardial ischemia, cath lab is indicated if the pain persists in spite of medical therapy (aspirin, anticoagulant, IV nitro). At 100 minutes, the above ECG was recorded.
There is normal R-wave progression in the precordial leads with no evidence of ischemia. COPD, Idiopathic PAH, acute or chronic PE, pulmonary valve stenosis, etc) 3) Conditions affecting RV myocardial contractility, such as ARVD or RV infarction The ECGs does not really show any signs of chronic RV dilation or hypertrophy.
It may be difficult to read STEMI in the setting of RBBB. There is, however, a long QT also, with abnormal T-waves, but this is not STEMI. This ECG was recorded prehospital, and the computer read STEMI, so the medics activated the cath lab: What do you think? The ECG is consistent with high lateral STEMI. Called 911.
1-4 Surprisingly, serial angiographic studies have revealed that the plaque at the site of the culprit lesion of a future acute myocardial infarction often does not cause stenosis that, as seen on the antecedent angiogram, is sufficiently severe to limit flow. Learning Points: 1.
Wellens' syndrome represents the aftermath of an unrecorded occlusion (STEMI) with spontaneous reperfusion. This was my interpretation: although most ischemic T-wave inversion is post -ischemic like Wellens, sometime active ischemia results in isolated T-wave inversion. We assumed this was Wellens' syndrome and treated as such.
There is ventricular hypertrophy in the absence of abnormal loading conditions, such as aortic stenosis, or hypertension, for example – of which the most common variant is Asymmetric Septal Hypertrophy. There is LBBB-like morphology with persistent patterns of subendocardial ischemia.
This meets "STEMI criteria" However, there is very high voltage, with a very deep S-wave in V2 and tall R-wave in V4. The morphology is not right for STEMI. My interpretation: LVH with secondary ST-T abnormalities, exaggerated by stress, not a STEMI. This is very good evidence that the ST elevation is not due to STEMI.
We have found in our study comparing inferior STEMI (manuscript in preparation) to inferior early repol several distinguishing characteristics. T-wave inversion in V2 is inconsistent with early repol, and is typical of posterior ischemia. In addition, there is ST depression, diagnostic of ischemia, in V3-V6. ng/ml 3 hours later.
This ECG is all but diagnostic of subepicardial ischemia of the anterior, lateral, and inferior walls, most likely due to Occlusion MI (OMI), probably of the LAD. There is a very small amount of STE in some of the anterior, lateral, and inferior leads which do NOT meet STEMI criteria. Here is his ECG on arrival: What do you think?
Code STEMI was activated by the ED physician based on the diagnostic ECG for LAD OMI in ventricular paced rhythm. This was several months after the 2022 ACC Guidelines adding modified Sgarbossa criteria as a STEMI equivalent in ventricular paced rhythm). LAFB, atrial flutter, anterolateral STEMI(+) OMI. Limkakeng AT.
Part of the ST depression with deep T wave inversion in the lateral chest leads clearly reflects LV "strain" from the marked LVH — but despite the very large QRS amplitudes, this ST-T wave appearance looks disproportionate, suggesting at least a component of ischemia. Then there is the significant ST elevation we see in lead V1.
At 2111, the troponin I peaked at 12.252 ng/mL (this is in the range of STEMI patients, quite high). The patient’s angiogram should have been expedited, but the EKG change was not recognized as recurrence of transmural ischemia. The red arrow points to a 90% stenosis in the proximal segment of the LAD.
A prehospital ECG was recorded (not shown and not seen by me) which was worrisome for STEMI. A previous ECG from 4 years prior was normal: This looks like an anterior STEMI, but it is complicated by tachycardia (which can greatly elevate ST segments) and by the presentation which is of fever and sepsis.
Cath at approximately 0945: "The LAD had a 90% proximal stenosis with TIMI 3 flow which corresponds to his ECG although LV function remains preserved. With nitroglycerin there is improvement in the 90% stenosis but still persistent stenosis consistent with the dynamic nature of his presentation. Is this Acute Ischemia?
There is an obvious inferior STEMI, but what else? Besides the obvious inferior STEMI, there is across the precordial leads also, especially in V1. This STE is diagnostic of Right Ventricular STEMI (RV MI). In fact, the STE is widespread, mimicking an anterior STEMI. EKG is pictured below: What do you think?
He wrote in his note that "The EKG showed early repolarization in I, V2-V3 but no clear STEMI pattern." If the patient had been "lucky," his symptoms from the prior day might have been due to ischemia prolonged and intense enough to result in small troponin increase. Of the 418 patient with ACO, 29% did not meet “STEMI criteria.”
The Queen of Hearts correctly says: Smith : Why is this ECG which manifests so much ST Elevation NOT a STEMI (even if it were a 60 year old with chest pain)? Physician interpretation: "No STEMI." Physician: "No STEMI." Cardiologist interpretation: "Technically does not meet STEMI criteria but concerning for ischemia."
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