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The ECG was interpreted as showing atrialflutter with 2:1 conduction. Are you confident there is no ischemia? The heart rate is about 130 bpm. The heart rate could be compatible with that of a 2:1 conducted atrialflutter. Also, lead I could give the initial impression of showing flutter waves.
The patient has heartfailure as a result of this event. If this STD were due to LVH or to subendocardial ischemia, rather than posterior OMI, it would be maximal in V5 and V6. 2 months later, he presented in pulmonary edema with atrialflutter and formal echo had EF 20% Why did this happen? Alcohol intoxication?
The rhythm is 2:1 atrialflutter. The flutter waves can conceal or mimic ischemic repolarization findings, but here I don't see any obvious findings of OMI or subendocardial ischemia. The bedside echo showed a large RV (Does this mean there is a pulmonary embolism as the etiology?) Lots of info here.
There is no evidence of infarction or ischemia. NT-proBNP values less than 300 pg/ml have a 99% negative predictive value for excluding congestive heartfailure. A cutoff of 1200 pg/ml for patients with a normal eGFR is very specific for heartfailure. The other atrialflutter types are: 1.
Evidence of acute ischemia (may be subtle) vii. History of Cardiovascular disease (all studies): Especially any history of heartfailure or structural cardiac disease, including valvular 4. to 22.7), a history of congestive heartfailure (OR: 5.3, 2nd or 3rd degree AV blocks or sinus pause of at least 2 seconds iv.
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