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My interpretation was: RBBB with hyperacute T-waves in V4-V6 that are all but diagnostic of LAD occlusion vs. post ROSC ischemia. The patient had ROSC and maintained it. A 12-lead ECG was obtained: What do you think? Regional wall motion abnormality--apical anterior, mid anteroseptal, apical septal, and apical inferior akinesis.
Atrialflutter with 2:1 conduction. The atrialflutter rate is approximately 200 bpm, with 2:1 AV conduction resulting in ventricular rate almost exactly 100 bpm. Further history revealed she had new onset atrialflutter soon after her aortic surgery, and was put on flecainide approximately 1 month ago.
Annals of Emergency Medicine 2021. LAFB, atrialflutter, anterolateral STEMI(+) OMI. EKG shown here: LAFB with no clear signs of OMI or ischemia. Electrocardiographic Diagnosis of Acute Coronary Occlusion Myocardial Infarction in Ventricular Paced Rhythm Using the Modified Sgarbossa Criteria. No labs were performed.
That said there were no clinical symptoms or ECG findings suggestive of ongoing ischemia. You have given IV MgSO4 a fast acting -blocker and IV amiodarone bolus and infusion. The possibility of an ischemic cause of the ventricular arrhythmia has to be considered! Troponin T was negative on admission and on repeat blood draw. Van Zyl, M.,
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